I am 22 and have never had sex. To prepare for my marriage this fall, I have started taking Triphasil-28 for birth control. Now I'm reading up on the pill, and I read that while the primary purpose of the pill is to stop ovulation, if by some chance you do ovulate, the pill also changes the lining of the uterus, so that a fertilized egg would not be able to nest. I'm having a moral dilemma with the idea that I could have a fertilized egg in my body and yet because of the pill, it wouldn't latch onto the uterus. Is this correct? If so, what are the chances of this occurring? Does fertilization without the egg latching on also occur in women who aren't on the pill? Is it just as likely in a woman who isn't on the pill as a woman who is? Is there any method that can stop ovulation without changing the environment in the uterus?

Laura

The pill acts by preventing ovulation. It also alters the function of the fallopian tubes, making it less likely for sperm and egg to meet if ovulation does occur. In addition, it thickens cervical mucus, so most sperm do not even get into the uterus or tubes. It does not cause abortion of a fertilized egg.

Many, many times a woman not using any form of birth control may conceive, but the fertilized egg never implants in the uterus and is lost with the menstrual period. Most of the time, the woman has no idea she had conceived. About 20 percent of women who are known to be pregnant miscarry, and we estimate that actually 50 percent of conceptions are lost. The pill is no more likely to cause this to happen than it happens anyway.